Coronary Artery Disease Quiz Coronary Artery Disease Quiz 1. What is the main cause of Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)? a) Bacterial infection b) Viral infection c) Atherosclerosis d) Autoimmune disorder 2. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for CAD? a) Hypertension b) Obesity c) Regular exercise d) Diabetes 3. What are the typical symptoms of CAD? a) Fever and cough b) Chest pain and discomfort c) Nausea and vomiting d) Dizziness and headache 4. How is CAD diagnosed?
Cataract Management MCQ Questions With Answers
A 65-year-old woman comes to your clinic with complaints of blurred vision in both eyes. On examination, you find that she has a mature cataract in her left eye and a slightly immature cataract in her right eye. What is the appropriate management strategy for her?
a) Immediate surgery for both eyes
b) Surgery for the left eye only
c) Surgery for the right eye only
d) Observation and conservative management for both eyes
Answer: b) Surgery for the left eye only. A mature cataract typically causes severe visual impairment and requires urgent surgical intervention. The slightly immature cataract in the right eye can be managed conservatively and monitored for progression.
A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with complaints of visual blurring and difficulty reading. On examination, you find that he has a posterior subcapsular cataract in both eyes. What is the appropriate management strategy for him?
a) Immediate surgery for both eyes
b) Observation and conservative management
c) Medical management with topical corticosteroids
d) Laser-assisted cataract surgery for both eyes
Answer: a) Immediate surgery for both eyes. Posterior subcapsular cataracts can cause significant visual impairment and can progress rapidly, especially in patients with diabetes. Surgical intervention is the most appropriate management strategy in this scenario.
A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of glare and difficulty driving at night. On examination, you find that she has a nuclear sclerotic cataract in both eyes. She also has a history of mild dry eye syndrome. What is the appropriate management strategy for her?
a) Immediate surgery for both eyes
b) Medical management with artificial tears
c) Observation and conservative management
d) Laser-assisted cataract surgery for both eyes
Answer: d) Laser-assisted cataract surgery for both eyes. Nuclear sclerotic cataracts can cause significant visual impairment and can be safely and effectively managed with surgery. Laser-assisted cataract surgery may be preferable in patients with mild dry eye syndrome to reduce the risk of postoperative complications.
A 60-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision in his left eye. On examination, you find that he has a traumatic cataract in his left eye with significant lens dislocation. What is the appropriate management strategy for him?
a) Observation and conservative management
b) Medical management with topical corticosteroids
c) Immediate surgery for left eye only
d) Immediate surgery for both eyes
Answer: c) Immediate surgery for left eye only. Traumatic cataracts require urgent surgical intervention, especially when associated with lens dislocation. Surgery for the unaffected eye can be deferred until there is evidence of significant visual impairment or cataract progression.
A 80-year-old man presents with complaints of increasing difficulty with reading and glare sensitivity. On examination, you find that he has a cortical cataract in his left eye and a nuclear cataract in his right eye. What is the appropriate management strategy for him?
a) Immediate surgery for both eyes
b) Surgery for the left eye only
c) Surgery for the right eye only
d) Observation and conservative management for both eyes
Answer: b) Surgery for the left eye only. The presence of a symptomatic cortical cataract in the left eye is an indication for surgery. The nuclear cataract in the right eye can be managed conservatively and monitored for progression.
A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of vision loss and distortion in her left eye. On examination, you find that she has a dense posterior subcapsular cataract in her left eye and a moderate nuclear cataract in her right eye. What is the appropriate management strategy for her?
a) Immediate surgery for both eyes
b) Surgery for the left eye only
c) Surgery for the right eye only
d) Observation and conservative management for both eyes
Answer: b) Surgery for the left eye only. The dense posterior subcapsular cataract in the left eye is causing significant visual impairment and requires urgent surgical intervention. The moderate nuclear cataract in the right eye can be managed conservatively and monitored for progression.
A 65-year-old man presents with complaints of visual blurring and difficulty driving at night. On examination, you find that he has a mild nuclear cataract in both eyes. He also has a history of primary open-angle glaucoma. What is the appropriate management strategy for him?
a) Immediate surgery for both eyes
b) Observation and conservative management
c) Medical management with topical glaucoma medication
d) Laser-assisted cataract surgery for both eyes
Answer: d) Laser-assisted cataract surgery for both eyes. Mild nuclear cataracts may not cause significant visual impairment, but in the presence of primary open-angle glaucoma, surgical intervention may be preferred to reduce the risk of progression of the disease.
A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of visual blurring and glare sensitivity. On examination, you find that she has a mature cataract in her left eye and a moderately dense nuclear cataract in her right eye. She also has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the appropriate management strategy for her?
a) Immediate surgery for both eyes
b) Surgery for the left eye only
c) Surgery for the right eye only
d) Observation and conservative management for both eyes
Answer: b) Surgery for the left eye only. The mature cataract in the left eye is causing severe visual impairment and requires urgent surgical intervention. The moderately dense nuclear cataract in the right eye can be managed conservatively and monitored for progression. The history of COPD may increase the risk of complications with anesthesia, but the benefits of surgery in the left eye outweigh the risks.
A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of increasing difficulty with reading and bright light sensitivity. On examination, you find that he has a posterior polar cataract in his left eye and a mild nuclear cataract in his right eye. What is the appropriate management strategy for him?
a) Immediate surgery for both eyes
b) Surgery for the left eye only
c) Surgery for the right eye only
d) Observation and conservative management for both eyes
Answer: b) Surgery for the left eye only. Posterior polar cataracts can cause significant visual impairment and may require surgical intervention.
Comments
Post a Comment