Exam Legend - Medical Exam Questions

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Myocarditis Pathology MCQ Questions With Answers

Myocarditis Pathology MCQ Questions along with their Answers Myocarditis is defined as: a) Inflammation of the myocardium b) Hardening of the myocardium c) Formation of blood clots in the myocardium d) Enlargement of the myocardium Answer: a) Inflammation of the myocardium Which of the following is the most common cause of infectious myocarditis? a) Bacterial infection b) Viral infection c) Fungal infection d) Parasitic infection Answer: b) Viral infection In myocarditis, the infiltration of which cells is commonly observed in the myocardium? a) Lymphocytes b) Neutrophils c) Eosinophils d) Monocytes Answer: a) Lymphocytes Which histological finding is characteristic of eosinophilic myocarditis? a) Granulomas in the myocardium b) Fibrosis and scarring of the myocardium c) Eosinophilic infiltration in the myocardium d) Presence of multinucleated giant cells Answer: c) Eosinophilic infiltration in the myocardium Myocarditis can lead to which of the following complications? a) Arrhythmia

Causes And Differential Diagnosis Of Headache

Causes And Differential Diagnosis Of Headache I. Acute Headache 1. Trauma 2. Cerebrovascular Causes a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Intracranial hemorrhage/infarction 3. Meningitis 4. Systemic infection 5. Acute angle-closure glaucoma II. Chronic or Recurrent Headache 1. Tension headache 2. Migraine 3. Cluster headaches 4. Raised intracranial pressure a. Tumor b. Hydrocephalus c. Cerebral abscess 5. Temporal arteritis 6. Drug-related causes a. Glyceryl trinitrate b. Nifedipine c. Substance withdrawal

Weight Gain Differential Diagnosis

'WEIGHT GAIN' Differential Diagnosis In most cases, weight gain is not pathological. With the exception of pregnancy the conditions listed below account for less than 1% of patients presenting with weight gain. CAUSES Pregnancy Increased fat Cushing's syndrome Hypothyroidism Polycystic ovarian syndrome Hypothalamic disease Increased fluid Cardiac failure Renal failure-nephrotic syndrome Ascites Lymphatic obstruction Increased muscle Growth hormone Androgenic steroids Athletes, e.g. weightlifters

Respiratory Failure Multiple Choice Questions and Answers related to its causes and treatment

Multiple-choice questions and answers related to the causes and treatment of Respiratory Failure Scenario: John, a 60-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath. He is cyanotic and has difficulty speaking in full sentences. His oxygen saturation is 85% on room air. What is the most likely cause of his respiratory failure? a) Pulmonary embolism b) Pneumonia c) Asthma exacerbation d) Acute exacerbation of COPD Answer: d) Acute exacerbation of COPD Scenario: Sarah, a previously healthy 35-year-old woman, is admitted to the hospital with acute respiratory distress. She has a high fever, productive cough, and chest pain. On auscultation, coarse crackles are heard throughout her lung fields. Chest X-ray reveals infiltrates in both lung fields. What is the most likely cause of her respiratory failure? a) Pulmonary embolism b) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) c) Pneumonia d) Acut

Cardioselective Beta Blockers MCQ Questions And Answers

Cardioselective Beta Blockers MCQ Questions And Answers What is the primary use of cardioselective beta blockers? A) Treatment of hypertension B) Treatment of asthma C) Treatment of angina D) Treatment of depression Answer: C) Treatment of angina Which of the following is a cardioselective beta blocker? A) Propranolol B) Atenolol C) Carvedilol D) Metoprolol Answer: B) Atenolol Which organ/system is primarily targeted by cardioselective beta blockers? A) Central nervous system B) Respiratory system C) Cardiovascular system D) Gastrointestinal system Answer: C) Cardiovascular system Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of cardioselective beta blockers? A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) B) Hypertension C) Migraine D) Diabetes mellitus Answer: A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) Which of the following is a potential side effect of cardioselective beta blockers? A) Increased heart rate B) Bronchospasm C) Weight gain D) Hypertension A

Dementia Related MCQ Questions And Answers

Dementia Disease MCQ Questions And Answers| Dementia MCQs | Dementia MCQ With Answers| Dementia Related MCQ Questions Sarah, a 65-year-old woman, has been experiencing memory loss, confusion, and difficulty performing daily tasks. She often forgets where she put her belongings and struggles to follow conversations. Her family is concerned about her condition. Which type of dementia is Sarah most likely experiencing? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Vascular dementia C) Lewy body dementia D) Frontotemporal dementia Answer: A) Alzheimer's disease John, a 70-year-old man, has recently undergone surgery to repair a heart valve. Following the surgery, he experienced a sudden change in his cognitive abilities. He had difficulties with attention, memory, and decision-making. Which type of dementia is John most likely experiencing? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Vascular dementia C) Lewy body dementia D) Postoperative delirium Answer: D) Postoperative delirium Mary, a 75-year-old woman, has b

MCQs On Viral Diseases Of Skin: Chicken Pox, Measles And Herpes Zoster

MCQs On Viral Diseases Of Skin: Chicken Pox, Measles And Herpes Zoster Sarah, a 5-year-old girl, presents with a rash characterized by small, itchy red spots that develop into fluid-filled blisters. She has a fever and complains of a sore throat. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Chickenpox B) Measles C) Herpes zoster D) Impetigo Answer: A) Chickenpox John, a 30-year-old man, develops a painful rash along the right side of his abdomen. The rash is accompanied by tingling and burning sensations. He recalls having chickenpox as a child. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Chickenpox B) Measles C) Herpes zoster D) Impetigo Answer: C) Herpes zoster (shingles) Lily, a 3-year-old girl, presents with a high fever, cough, runny nose, and red eyes. Small white spots with bluish-white centers appear inside her mouth, followed by a rash that starts on her face and spreads downward. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Chickenpox B) Measles C) Herpes zoster D) Impetigo Answer: B) Measles Ma

Presbyopia And Myopia MCQ Questions And Answers

Presbyopia And Myopia MCQ Questions And Answers Scenario: Jane, a 45-year-old woman, has recently noticed that she is having difficulty reading small print up close. However, she has no trouble seeing distant objects clearly. Which condition is she likely experiencing? A) Presbyopia B) Myopia C) Astigmatism D) Hyperopia Answer: A) Presbyopia Scenario: Mark, a 15-year-old boy, has been experiencing blurred vision when looking at distant objects. He often squints to see things clearly in the distance. Which condition is he likely experiencing? A) Presbyopia B) Myopia C) Astigmatism D) Hyperopia Answer: B) Myopia Scenario: Sarah, a 50-year-old woman, has recently been diagnosed with presbyopia. She wears contact lenses for distance vision correction but is having difficulty reading and seeing objects up close. What is the most suitable option for Sarah? A) Continue wearing her distance contact lenses B) Switch to bifocal contact lenses C) Use reading glasses over her distance contact lens

Dysphagia Causes, Symptoms And Treatment MCQ Questions With Answers

Dysphagia Causes, Symptoms And Treatment MCQ Questions With Answers Dysphagia is characterized by: a) Difficulty breathing b) Difficulty swallowing c) Difficulty speaking d) Difficulty walking Answer: b) Difficulty swallowing Common symptoms of dysphagia include: a) Chest pain b) Weight gain c) Increased appetite d) Improved taste sensation Answer: a) Chest pain The most common cause of dysphagia is: a) Allergies b) Acid reflux c) Diabetes d) Stroke Answer: b) Acid reflux Treatment options for dysphagia may include: a) Medications to reduce inflammation b) Swallowing therapy exercises c) Surgery to remove the throat obstruction d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above Complications of untreated dysphagia can include: a) Malnutrition b) Dehydration c) Aspiration pneumonia d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above Dysphagia can result from abnormalities in which part of the body? a) Lungs b) Esophagus c) Stomach d) Liver Answer: b) Esophagus Dysphagia can be categorized int

Malnutrition In Children MCQ Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions about Malnutrition in Children along with their answers | MCQs What is malnutrition? a) Overconsumption of food b) Deficiency of essential nutrients c) Excessive physical activity d) Genetic disorder Answer: b) Deficiency of essential nutrients Which of the following is a consequence of severe malnutrition in children? a) Increased energy levels b) Improved cognitive development c) Stunted growth d) Enhanced immune system Answer: c) Stunted growth Which nutrient deficiency can lead to a condition called kwashiorkor? a) Vitamin C b) Iron c) Protein d) Calcium Answer: c) Protein Which type of malnutrition is characterized by a lack of calories and protein? a) Marasmus b) Rickets c) Scurvy d) Beriberi Answer: a) Marasmus Which of the following is a common cause of malnutrition in children? a) Excessive exercise b) Overhydration c) Poverty and food insecurity d) High protein intake Answer: c) Poverty and food insecurity Which organ is primarily affected by vitamin

Antepartum Haemorrhage MCQ Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions related to Antepartum Hemorrhage (APH), along with their answers Mrs. Johnson, a 32-year-old pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation, presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding. She denies any abdominal pain or contractions. On examination, her vital signs are stable, and the fetal heart rate is reassuring. The cervix is closed. What is the most likely cause of her bleeding? a) Placenta previa b) Placental abruption c) Cervical polyp d) Uterine rupture Answer: a) Placenta previa Mrs. Rodriguez, a 28-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation, arrives at the labor and delivery unit with significant vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. On examination, her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 120 bpm, and the fetal heart rate is absent. The abdomen is tender and rigid. What is the most likely cause of her condition? a) Placenta previa b) Placental abruption c) Cervical polyp d) Uterine rupture Answer: b) Placental abruption M

Diarrhea Causes And Treatment MCQ Questions With Answers

MCQ Questions on Diarrhea, It's Causes, Diagnosis And Treatment What is the most common cause of acute diarrhea? A) Viral infection B) Bacterial infection C) Parasitic infection D) Food poisoning Answer: A) Viral infection Which of the following is a common symptom of diarrhea? A) Abdominal pain B) Constipation C) Decreased appetite D) Headache Answer: A) Abdominal pain What is the most common method used for diagnosing the cause of diarrhea? A) Stool culture B) Blood test C) Urine test D) X-ray Answer: A) Stool culture Which of the following is a potential complication of severe or persistent diarrhea? A) Dehydration B) Hypertension C) Hyperglycemia D) Osteoporosis Answer: A) Dehydration Which of the following is a common treatment for diarrhea? A) Antibiotics B) Antihistamines C) Antidepressants D) Oral rehydration therapy Answer: D) Oral rehydration therapy When should you seek medical attention for diarrhea? A) If it lasts longer than 24 hours B) If it is accompanied by severe

Cranial Nerve Lesions Causes MCQ Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions MCQ about the causes of cranial nerve lesions, along with their answers What is the most common cause of cranial nerve lesions? a) Trauma b) Infection c) Tumor d) Vascular disorders Answer: c) Tumor Which cranial nerve lesion is commonly associated with Bell's palsy? a) Cranial nerve II b) Cranial nerve V c) Cranial nerve VII d) Cranial nerve XII Answer: c) Cranial nerve VII Which condition can cause cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve) lesions? a) Migraine b) Stroke c) Multiple sclerosis d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above What is a common cause of cranial nerve VI (abducens nerve) lesions? a) Diabetes mellitus b) Trauma c) Inflammatory conditions d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above Which cranial nerve is most commonly affected in patients with acoustic neuroma? a) Cranial nerve I b) Cranial nerve VII c) Cranial nerve VIII d) Cranial nerve X Answer: c) Cranial nerve VIII Which of the following conditions is a common cause of crania

Rheumatic Fever MCQ Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions about rheumatic fever along with their answers Question 1: Maria, a 10-year-old girl, presents to the clinic with complaints of joint pain and swelling, fever, and a rash on her trunk. She recently recovered from a streptococcal throat infection. On examination, she has tender, swollen joints and a red, raised rash that migrates from one area to another. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis C) Systemic lupus erythematosus D) Rheumatic fever Answer: D) Rheumatic fever Question 2: John, a 15-year-old boy, is brought to the emergency department with chest pain, shortness of breath, and a low-grade fever. He has a history of untreated streptococcal throat infection two weeks ago. On examination, he has a pericardial friction rub, a new mitral regurgitation murmur, and evidence of cardiac enlargement on chest X-ray. Which of the following is the most likely complication of his previous infecti

Alopecia Diagnosis And Treatment MCQ Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple-choice questions about Alopecia diagnosis and treatment along with their answers Which of the following is NOT a common type of alopecia? a) Androgenetic alopecia b) Alopecia areata c) Alopecia universalis d) Alopecia parietalis Answer: d) Alopecia parietalis Which of the following is a characteristic feature of alopecia areata? a) Patchy hair loss b) Receding hairline c) Hair thinning all over the scalp d) Complete absence of body hair Answer: a) Patchy hair loss What is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm the diagnosis of alopecia areata? a) Blood tests b) Skin biopsy c) Hair analysis d) Scalp examination Answer: b) Skin biopsy Which of the following is an FDA-approved medication for the treatment of androgenetic alopecia? a) Minoxidil b) Finasteride c) Corticosteroids d) Tacrolimus Answer: b) Finasteride Which treatment option is commonly used for extensive cases of alopecia areata? a) Topical corticosteroids b) Oral immunosuppressive drugs c) Hair transplantation d

Vaginal Discharge Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions about Vaginal Discharge, along with their answers Question 1: Sarah, a 26-year-old woman, notices a thin, milky white discharge with a mild odor. She experiences no itching or discomfort. What is the most likely cause of her vaginal discharge? A) Bacterial vaginosis B) Yeast infection C) Normal physiological discharge D) Sexually transmitted infection Answer: C) Normal physiological discharge Explanation: In this scenario, the absence of symptoms like itching or discomfort, along with a thin, milky white discharge with a mild odor, suggests a normal physiological discharge. Normal vaginal discharge can vary in consistency and color throughout the menstrual cycle. Question 2: Emily, a 35-year-old woman, complains of thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge accompanied by intense itching and redness around the vaginal area. She also experiences discomfort during urination. What is the most likely cause of her vaginal discharge? A) Bacterial vaginosis B) Yeast

Sickle Cell Anemia Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions about sickle cell anemia along with their answers What is the cause of sickle cell anemia? a) Bacterial infection b) Genetic mutation c) Exposure to environmental toxins d) Autoimmune reaction Answer: b) Genetic mutation Which type of inheritance pattern is associated with sickle cell anemia? a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive c) X-linked dominant d) X-linked recessive Answer: b) Autosomal recessive Which molecule is primarily affected in sickle cell anemia? a) Hemoglobin b) Insulin c) DNA d) Collagen Answer: a) Hemoglobin What is the normal shape of red blood cells in individuals without sickle cell anemia? a) Round b) Oval c) Sickle-shaped d) Crescent-shaped Answer: a) Round What causes the sickle-shaped red blood cells in sickle cell anemia? a) Deficiency of iron b) Abnormal immune response c) Accumulation of toxins in the blood d) Abnormal hemoglobin structure Answer: d) Abnormal hemoglobin structure Which population is most commonly affected by

Deafness Causes And Diagnosis MCQ Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions about the causes and diagnosis of deafness, along with their answers What is the leading cause of deafness worldwide? a) Genetic factors b) Noise exposure c) Aging d) Infections Answer: b) Noise exposure Which of the following is a common genetic cause of deafness? a) Meningitis b) Otosclerosis c) Usher syndrome d) Meniere's disease Answer: c) Usher syndrome Sensorineural hearing loss is typically caused by damage to which part of the ear? a) Outer ear b) Middle ear c) Inner ear d) Eustachian tube Answer: c) Inner ear Conductive hearing loss is often caused by problems in which part of the ear? a) Cochlea b) Auditory nerve c) Ear canal or middle ear d) Tympanic membrane Answer: c) Ear canal or middle ear What is the most common method used to diagnose deafness? a) Blood test b) X-ray c) Audiogram d) CT scan Answer: c) Audiogram Which of the following is a typical symptom of hearing loss? a) Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) b) Vertigo c) Blurred vision d) Nau

Antiviral Treatment For Hepatitis B MCQ Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions about hepatitis B antiviral treatment along with their answers Which of the following is the first-line antiviral medication for chronic hepatitis B? a) Interferon alpha b) Lamivudine c) Adefovir d) Tenofovir Answer: d) Tenofovir Which of the following antiviral medications requires renal monitoring? a) Entecavir b) Telbivudine c) Tenofovir d) Adefovir Answer: c) Tenofovir Which of the following antiviral medications is safe to use during pregnancy? a) Lamivudine b) Entecavir c) Tenofovir d) Adefovir Answer: b) Entecavir Which antiviral medication is associated with a higher risk of developing drug resistance? a) Entecavir b) Telbivudine c) Tenofovir d) Adefovir Answer: b) Telbivudine Which of the following antiviral medications has a higher barrier to resistance? a) Lamivudine b) Entecavir c) Telbivudine d) Adefovir Answer: b) Entecavir Which of the following antiviral medications can be used in patients with decompensated liver disease? a) Lamivudine b) Ente

Cataract Surgery MCQ Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions about cataract surgery along with their answers Question 1: Scenario: Mr. Johnson, a 65-year-old man, is diagnosed with cataracts in both eyes. He is concerned about the risks involved in cataract surgery due to his age and overall health. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response from the ophthalmologist? A) "Cataract surgery is not recommended for individuals above the age of 60." B) "We can delay the surgery until your cataracts significantly affect your vision." C) "Cataract surgery is a safe and effective procedure, and age is not a contraindication." D) "I would recommend alternative treatments such as medication or eye drops." Answer: C) "Cataract surgery is a safe and effective procedure, and age is not a contraindication." Question 2: Scenario: Mrs. Thompson, a 70-year-old woman, has cataracts in both eyes and is also suffering from age-related macular degeneration (AMD). She wants

Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy MCQ Questions With Answers

Multiple-choice questions about laparoscopic cholecystectomy along with their answers Which of the following statements regarding laparoscopic cholecystectomy is correct? a) It is an open surgical procedure. b) It involves removal of the gallbladder using a single large incision. c) It is a minimally invasive procedure performed through small incisions. d) It is only used for diagnostic purposes. Answer: c) It is a minimally invasive procedure performed through small incisions. What is the primary reason for performing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy? a) Treatment of gallbladder cancer b) Treatment of gallstone-related complications c) Diagnosis of gallbladder diseases d) Treatment of liver cirrhosis Answer: b) Treatment of gallstone-related complications During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which instrument is used to cut and seal blood vessels? a) Grasper b) Trocar c) Laparoscope d) Electrosurgical device Answer: d) Electrosurgical device What is the typical number of incisions made

Aortic Stenosis MCQ Questions With Answers

Aortic Stenosis Multiple Choice Questions and Answers Question 1: A 70-year-old male patient presents with exertional dyspnea, chest pain, and fatigue. On examination, a harsh systolic murmur is heard over the right second intercostal space. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a) Mitral regurgitation b) Aortic stenosis c) Atrial septal defect d) Pulmonary stenosis Answer: b) Aortic stenosis Question 2: A 65-year-old female patient with a history of a bicuspid aortic valve presents with progressive shortness of breath and syncope. Physical examination reveals a systolic ejection murmur and a delayed and diminished carotid upstroke. An echocardiogram shows severe aortic stenosis with a peak gradient of 80 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step in management? a) Initiate medical therapy with beta-blockers b) Refer the patient for surgical aortic valve replacement c) Perform percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty d) Monitor the patient with regular follow-up Answer: b) R